Rational Solver
0 votes
405 views
If $(x_n)$ is a sequence in $\mathbb R$ such that for each $m \in\mathbb N$ with $m > 1$,  the subsequence $(x_{mn})$ of $(x_n)$ is convergent, then can we conclude that $(x_n)$ is also  convergent?
in Real Analysis by Professor | 405 views

1 Answer

0 votes
Best answer
No. We can't conclude anything. Note that for each $m,n>1$, $mn$ is always a composite number. So we can define a sequence which takes a constant value $c_1$  on each composite number and another constant value $c_2$ on prime numbers. Then we can see that each of its subsequence of the form $(x_{mn})$ will converge to $c_1$ whereas the subsequence $(x_p)$ where $p$ runs over the prime number sets then $(x_p)$ will converge to $c_2$. This conclude that our sequence is not convergent.
by Professor
Welcome to Rational Solver, where you can ask questions and receive answers from other members of the community.
76 questions
33 answers
2 comments
1,801 users